VTNE Exam Review & Practice Test
Owned and administered by the AAVSB (American Association of Veterinary State Boards), the VTNE (Veterinary Technician National Examination) is used to assess the competency of entry-level veterinary technicians. All Canadian provinces and most United States jurisdictions require that candidates pass this test as one of the conditions to be met before licensure.
The VTNE exam is given twice a year-in January and in June. It is constantly reviewed and reevaluated by highly-qualified item writers, who update it as needed. This updating is done in order to keep the VTNE as a valid and useful tool in the licensing of candidates.
To qualify to sit for the test, the VTNE candidate must either be a graduate of an AVMA (American Veterinary Medical Association) or CVMA (Canadian Veterinary Medical Association) accredited Veterinary Technicians program or will be a graduate within six months. Before the candidate can sit for the VTNE test, he or she must have submitted one of the following documents to the AAVSB:
- Official final transcript: This transcript must come directly from the school.
- Letter of eligibility: The school may send a letter on the candidate’s behalf stating that he or she is within six months of graduating.
If the candidate fails the test the first time, he or she is allowed to take it four more times, for a total of five times. To take the exam after the fifth time, a candidate must get approval from the AAVSB Board of Directors. Before the Board approves such an appeal, the candidate will have to do these two things:
- Provide proof that the appropriate licensing board or certifying agency agrees that he or she would not be prohibited from being licensed or certified after five failures to pass the VTNE. This proof must come in the form of a letter from the licensing board or certifying agency.
- Provide proof that he or she has worked to become better prepared for the test. This proof can be in the form of records of test preparation classes or a letter from someone who has tutored the candidate.
Free VTNE Practice Test Questions
1. Which of the following physiologic or psychologic changes reliably indicates that parturition is less than 24 hours away?
A. Nesting behavior
B. Mucoid vaginal discharge
C. A body temperature drop to less than 100 degrees Fahrenheit
2. Twenty milliequivalents (mEq) of potassium chloride (KCl) is added to a 250 mL bag of sodium chloride. If the patient’s fluid rate is 75 mL/hr, how many mEq of KCl is he receiving per hour? The maximum rate of potassium supplementation in fluids is 0.5 mEq/kg/hr. Given that this patient weighs 25 pounds, should his current fluid rate of 75 mL/hr be increased, decreased, or left unchanged?
A. 6 mEq/hr; increased
B. 2 mEq/hr; unchanged
C. 6 mEq/hr; decreased
D. 12 mEq/hr; decreased
3. Which of the following species is/are NOT seasonally polyestrous?
B. Sheep and deer
D. Dogs and pigs
4. What 2 heavy metals are usually suspected in a case of avian poisoning?
A. Zinc and cerium
B. Iron and beryllium
C. Copper and mercury
D. Zinc and lead
Questions 5-8 refer to the following case study:
A 55-pound Australian Shepherd (“Bobbi”) ingested a 40-ounce bag of milk chocolate candies. It is now 1-hour post-ingestion, and Bobbi is demonstrating restlessness, muscle tremors, and generalized hyperactivity.
5. What is the active ingredient in chocolate that is ultimately responsible for these clinical signs?
6. Symptoms of toxicosis occur when this active ingredient is ingested at a dose of 100 mg/kg. What is “Bobbi’s” toxic dose for this ingredient?
A. 5500 mg
B. 2500 mg
C. 11000 mg
D. 1200 mg
7. Milk chocolate contains 50 mg/ounce of this active ingredient. If Bobbi consumed 40 ounces of milk chocolate, how many milligrams of this ingredient did she ingest?
A. 2000 mg
B. 200 mg
C. 1000 mg
D. 1500 mg
8. The attending veterinarian instructs the technician to induce emesis with apomorphine (1 mg/mL) at a dose of 0.03 mg/kg intravenously. How many milliliters did the patient receive?
A. 1.2 mL
B. 12 mL
C. 0.75 mL
D. 7.5 mL
9. All of the following groups of antibiotics are bacteriocidal EXCEPT:
10. hat is the earliest day of gestation that an equine pregnancy be confirmed using ultrasound?
A. Day 5
B. Day 11
C. Day 20
D. Day 45
1: (C) A body temperature drop to less than 100 degrees Fahrenheit
In pregnant bitches, a drop in body temperature to below 100 degrees Fahrenheit usually indicates that parturition will occur within the next 24 hours. Owners should evaluate body temperature during the last week of gestation so that they can be prepared or available for the bitch and puppies if needed. Nesting behavior, lactation, and a mucoid vaginal discharge represent unreliable indicators of impending parturition. Milk production can occur up to 2 weeks prior to labor. Nesting behavior and a mucoid vaginal discharge may occur several days before the onset of labor.
2: (C) 6 mEq/hr; decrease fluid rate
20 mEq/250 mL = 2 mEq/25 mL
2 mEq/25 mL = X/75 mL; X = 6 mEq/hr
25 lb * 1 kg/2.2 lb = 11.36 kg
0.5 mEq/kg * 11.36 kg = 5.68 mEq/hour.
If the patient is receiving 6 mEq/hr with the current fluid rate, then he is receiving above the maximum rate of potassium supplementation at 5.68 mEq/hr.
Fluid rate will need to be decreased.
3: (D) Dogs and pigs
Mares, does, ewes, and cats are all seasonally polyestrous species, meaning these animals have repeating estrus cycles during certain times of the year when daylight starts to either decrease or increase. Mares, for example, go into estrus during spring and summer months in response to increasing amounts of daylight. They will have several repeating estrus cycles until bred. Sheep and deer are seasonally polyestrous during the fall and winter months when daylight hours decrease. Dogs are nonseasonally diestrous, which means that their estrus cycles are not dependent on seasons and occur only twice a year. Pigs are nonseasonally polyestrous, meaning they cycle repeatedly throughout the year.
4: (D) Zinc and lead
Zinc and lead are the 2 most common heavy metals encountered by pet birds due to their prevalence in just about any household. Materials that contain lead include certain paints and the wrappers from wine bottles. A common source of zinc is galvanized wire. When ingested, these metals cause a variety of clinical signs such as polyuria and polydipsia, lethargy, inappetence, and vomiting. Radiographs will confirm the presence of metal in the gastrointestinal tract. Chelation therapy with calcium ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA), which binds to the metal, as well as supportive care are necessary for recovery.
5 (B) Theobromine
Theobromine is the active ingredient in milk chocolate and is classified as a methylxanthine. Methylxanthines, which also include caffeine and theophylline, are potent cardiovascular and central nervous system stimulants, and also have a diuretic effect on the kidneys. Clinical signs may include vomiting, diarrhea, hyperactivity, restlessness, and tachycardia. In advanced cases, seizures, coma, and/or death are not uncommon.
6: (B) 2500 mg
First, convert Bobbi’s weight to kg:
55 lb * 1 kg/2.2 lb = 25 kg.
Second, multiply the toxic dose by Bobbi’s weight in kilograms:
25 kg * 100 mg/kg = 2500 mg.
The toxic dose of theobromine for Bobbi is 2500 mg.
7: (A) 2000 mg of theobromine.
Multiply 50 mg/ounce by 40 ounces to yield a product of 2000 mg. It is important to note that even though Bobbi did not technically consume the toxic dose for her weight, she is still demonstrating clinical signs. This serves to illustrate that different dogs have varying sensitivities to theobromine, whether the toxic dose is ingested or not. So it is always important to recommend examination for any dog that has consumed a quantity in excess of or near to the approximated toxic amount.
8: (C) 0.75 mL of apomorphine
First, convert 55 pounds to kilograms:
55 lbs * 1 kg/2.2 lbs = 25 kg.
Second, multiply the dose by the weight in kg:
25 kg * 0.03 mg/kg = 0.75 mg apomorphine.
Third, multiply the concentration of apomorphine by 0.75 mg:
0.75 mg * 1 mL/mg = 0.75 mL apomorphine.
9: (B) Tetracyclines.
Bacteriostatic antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, do not kill bacteria; however, they do work to arrest or inhibit their growth or multiplication. Tetracyclines, specifically, act to inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the cellular ribosomes. They are successfully used as treatment against most Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Rickettsia, and spirochetes (ie, Lyme disease).
10: (B) Day 11 of gestation
Ultrasonography provides the earliest detection of pregnancy on day 11 of gestation in the equine.
VTNE Exam Introduction: